. The point is that an infinite number of levels are involved in any level of motion, so part of the issue concerns how infinity can ever be reached.
Not, really. The point of the zeno paradox is that something is always in motion, infinitly small motion over a infinitly small distance. Basically, do you agree with the fact of a motion time graph, if you do then you will agree that it has a gradient at a certain point. If you use simple differentiation you will get the acceleration, all you need is this to be positive or negative but decreasing at a certain rate.
Can something travel all the way across an infinite universe?
Firstly, there is speed to which someone can travel. In the zeno paradox someone is traveling across a infinite amount of points, but not distance. Again, newton mechanics doesn't break down if something travels a meter, as again its just preschool calculus.
How exactly can either infinity be covered? An infinite number of points exist between A and B, and with limitless time, a stopping of time does not stop the journey.
Simple calculus. Its funny how this problem was solved ages ago, yet it keeps coming up because people are ignorant of maths, hence that stupid is 0.99999...=1 thread.
Beyond that, I don't know. (Some people here might be surprised to see me say, "I don't know," but Zeno's Paradox is one thing that has me saying it.)
Anyway, buy a preschool calculus book and maybe a book mechanics.
P.S. 0.99...=1, generally k/9=0.kkkk.....
The fact that distance is infinitely divisible is compensated for by the fact that time is also infinitely divisible. Infinity can be covered by infinity.
If that is not the full explanation, the truth lies somewhere in there.
Distance isn't infinitely divisible, well thats what I heard. Anyway, your argument is not mathematically rigorous. Infinite is a tricky thing and is best left to mathematician and not layman.
For example, did you know that the size of set (1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,,) is the same as the set (1/n,1/(n1),,,,1,1+(1/n),,,2,,,,4,,,,6,,,,7) where n is a natural number.
Both of them are equal, yet it kind of defies common sense.
However, is the set of all the point between 0 to 1 the same size as both the top sets. The anwser is no, infact its soo big it can't be counted.
Lastly, do you think that there is another set between two top sets and the bottom set. Strangely the problem is undecidable at the moment.


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