Mathematical Proof of Fate
Hey everybody, this is my first new topic since DV has been back up and running. Hope you all find it interesting. Just a little idea that I came up with about a year ago.
Mathematical Proof of Fate:
Ok, here goes. Pretend that you are rolling a die. Initially you may assume that there are 6 possible outcomes of this action. Either a 1,2,3,4,5 or 6 will be face up when the die comes to a stop.
However, in reality there are an infinite number of outcomes. Each time you roll the die the factors that effect the outcome are different.
ie. The first time you roll it could bounce twice, roll 4 times, be exposed to 0.03 newtons of friction and have an air pressure surrounding it of 101.134 kPa. The second time you roll, it could bounce 5 times, roll once, slide half an inch, be exposed to 0.4 newtons of friction, and have an air pressuse of 101.342 surrounding it.
The point I'm trying to make is that there are an infinite number of ways that the die can reach its final outcome. Hope you're all still following.
Now, here comes the math (it isn't too involved). For the purpose of this post, the symbol ~ is going to represent infinity, because its the closest thing to the actual symbol of infinity.
I've already shown that there are an infinite number of possible outcomes for a single event, but in actuality, only one of those events do happen. Therefore the chance of that one event occuring is 1/~. However, we all know from high school algebra that 1/~ is equivalent to 0. Therefore, the chance of that event occuring is 0, zip, notta, none.
But obviously the event did take place, we saw it take place. Therefore, the event had to have been predetermined to take place at all.
Questions, criticisms?
Re: Mathematical Proof of Fate
Quote:
Originally posted by bradybaker
I've already shown that there are an infinite number of possible outcomes for a single event, but in actuality, only one of those events do happen. Therefore the chance of that one event occuring is 1/~. However, we all know from high school algebra that 1/~ is equivalent to 0. Therefore, the chance of that event occuring is 0, zip, notta, none.
Hey brady, few questions. i'm only just catching up on highschool maths in uni now (I was lazy and took "stupid maths" at highschool) could you explain that to me? Wouldn't 1/~ only be equivalent to 0 when you assumed one of infinitie's values could be 0? There has to be an event so it'd be 1/~ (where ~ is infinity from 1->). So then its just statistics. 1/6 for the "rational" outcomes for your example, 1/(x>6) for the rest "not-so-rational" :D ones (I guess the dice COULD break in two and somehow have a pattern of breakage that looked like any other number, or an elephant could appear and sit on it)
I'm not up to speed on the ol' maths, but I'm tryin! Tell yah what, I wont vote till someone explains it to me :)
-spoon (is never going to get into a maths degree if he doesn't learn)