I'll try to be concise. Please don't mistake it for brutality, everything has been carefully considered.
 Originally Posted by stormcrow
The (perhaps at best dubious) implications of the KB effect suggest that associating speech sounds with abstract shapes or concepts is not arbitrary as we have once believed but seems to be (possibly) an innate cognitive structure present in humans regardless of sex, age, culture. I say that because some 90-95% of people (irrespective of age, sex, culture, native language, etc) correlate Kiki with the jagged shape and Bouba with the curved one. Autistic people statistically showed no preference apparently. To me the fact that an overwhelming majority of people correlate the words with the shapes in a particular way suggests to me the existence of a universal grammar. If speech sounds are not arbitrary in relation to what they represent signifies a first language (which seems pretty intuitive anyway, Ill call it Babelese!) from which all subsequent languages stem from. I think investigation into this theoretical language can give us insight into many problems in linguistics today as well as providing a window into the cognitive structures of the human mind.
I would tend to disagree very much with this interpretation. I would be hesitant to extend the Kiki/Bouba thing anywhere beyond what it simply is, which I regard thus: for aesthetic reasons, humans like to associate things with similar things (through their pattern recognition faculties). In the case of kiki, sharp changes are inherent in the physical sound, and hence there exists an objective similarity between to sound 'kiki' and the kiki object. Giving units of language a sound similar in some sense to the object is just done for practical reasons, and because it amuses us. In fact it's exactly analogous to the letter k itself, which is sharp, as opposed to b and o, which are rounded. This helps learners remember what they mean, and is aesthetically pleasing. Obviously there is no 'universal alphabet'; it is simply that the visual similarities form a universal substrate (as opposed to an internal thing).
I'm not exactly clear what 'universal grammar' means. In the crude sense above, it is patently obvious to anybody who has studied a language that grammar is not universal. In other languages, adjectives can precede or succeed nouns, verbs can follow pronouns or be sent right to the end of the sentence dependent on tense.
In a more general sense of a universal logic, again I would say that it is extrinsic. We all perceive the same world and hence the same patterns in it (the very general and important ones, anyway), and so we all generate the same mental models. Implication is a classic example. There's not really any such thing, it's just a pattern in experience.
I don't think there's much to be said here... other animals certainly have language, although none of them come remotely close to human language. You can actually do statistical analysis on the sounds animals make to put an objective figure on the complexity. I really can't remember clearly but I think dolphins are about halfway to humans, but this is on a logarithmic scale. Primates have only ever been observed to use single morphemes, which represent obvious patterns (such as 'danger' or 'food'). Undoubtedly what they are doing is a prototype of human language. In fact it could even be the whole of language, if language, as I speculated, is just a representational layer on top of conceptualisation; it's just that their thoughts are primitive. It is worth bearing in mind that humans are miles ahead at both conceptualisation and language. It seems unlikely that we evolved two unique traits so quickly, so one would imagine that there is a causal link.
 Originally Posted by stormcrow
What difference would it practically make to anyone if this notion rather than that notion were true?
I have heard something very similar from Ayer, I think, and Hume basically says it (personally I think he 'basically said' all of the philosophical truths which followed him).
I'm not sure if it is equivalent to my beliefs, but it seems to fit. There are three classic metaphysical questions I like to use as examples as things which are actually meaningless when you consider the pattern recognition basis of thought, and asking the above question of them places them in the same category:
Is there an objective world?
Is there free will?
Why is there something rather than nothing?
When I analyse the meaning of these words and sentences, I find that they are meaningless, and it is true that you cannot possibly observe anything that would bear upon them, so by that criterion they are also meaningless.
I would be way out of my league in a discussion about the concept of infinity with you so I will try not to stick my foot in my mouth too much. I believe infinity to be an abstraction from experience.
I think you're right, basically what mathematicians (Weierstrass was the main one) did was formulate infinity in finitary terms. 'Space is infinite' simply means, given any point in space, you can walk a meter in any direction from that point. It's not actually a concept about the totality; it's about finite, local concepts. 'The function tends to infinity at a' just means, if I ask you for any ridiculously huge (but finite) number, you can make the function greater than that number in some positive region around a. This can be proved, and the idea of infinite quantities is involved nowhere. It is of crucial importance to understand that the function is not actually defined at all on a. To get a feel for it I would suggest you try to prove that the function f(x) = 1/x^2 (defined for every x except 0) tends to infinity at 0.
 Originally Posted by stormcrow
Can we answer the question of meaning through breaking down propositions into semantically smaller parts until we reach the bedrock of language (morphemes)?
This is what I was trying to explain in that conversation with really; unfortunately he just got angry and gave up before I explained.
Again, I take the opposite view. I think that reductionism works beautifully in my philosophy (which again is just Hume from a modern perspective). There is no need for holism: the word 'tall' exists independent of the word 'short', and the foundationalist problem is not, for me, a problem. Not in the realm of language, anyway.
The way it works is simply by pattern recognition. The concepts in your brain are just patterns, symbols for commonalities in experience. When you really appreciate this idea, I think it's as beautiful as when you really appreciate the idea of natural selection. It makes so much sense from a naturalistic perspective... there is no magic involved in human thought, it's just a simple algorithmic process, and one which is really a very obvious adaptation.
Talking about the 'meaning' of atomic words (I agree totally with your analysis from compound words down to atomic ones, I just embed the atomic ones in the rock of experience) is a bit of a misnomer: a word just is the pattern it designates. We see many scenes with a variety of shapes: some of these shapes are bigger than ourselves. Thus we acquire the word 'tall'. The word 'tall' doesn't exist by virtue of the word 'short', it simply designates any object which satisfies the pattern. The word 'red'; there's a whole continuum of colours, but some of them always activate a specific bunch of neurons; thus we acquire the concept for red. If somebody is colour blind to all shades but red, they still acquire the concept of red (again, bearing in mind what exactly what the 'meaning' of 'red' means).
Oh. That wasn't concise at all.
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