Originally Posted by thegnome54
That's just massively flawed reasoning. You're essentially saying that if God does not do everything, you don't think he fits the 'perfect' criterion. "Perfect" does not mean "doing everything", otherwise you could say that since goes is unable to not exist, he isn't perfect, as he can't do everything. "Perfect", as seismosaur has said multiple times, means without flaw, whole, etc. Wants and needs are a clear reflection of imperfection, using the word 'perfect' as Christianity does to describe God.
Yes I know, I'm using the statement as an example to show the cyclical, "catch 22" nature of S's reasoning; it can work both ways. Nothing I said there is actually evidence for or against God, directly, neither did I intend it to be.
Originally Posted by thegnome54
Similar error as before. God is supposed to be 'perfect', the human ideal of a flawless being. No humans are perfect, and so all humans 'need' before they could be comsidered perfect. Therefore, all humans should be expected to want. God, however, being 'perfect' should not want. This is why the opposite is true for humans and God - one needs and should want, the other needs not and should not want.
I still feel that is judging God by Human terms.
Originally Posted by thegnome54
The human terms are suggested by the bible, when it says that god loves. Seismosaur's point here is really that there is no nonphysical basis for love, therefore in order for a god to experience love as we know it, it would have to be a physical being. Personally, I expand this argument to say that there is no evidence that anything nonphysical exists, and so the assumption that god does and is is uncalled for. Seis's argument is sort of a sub-category of this overarching issue of god's alleged non physicality.
Your extension of S's reasoning offers an ironic twist:
The non-physical God does not exist, because, a non-physical God cannot exist. Do you see the problem here?
Originally Posted by thegnome54
I don't think you read Seis's question properly. Look:
Last time I checked, all four of those accounts were in the bible. For all we know, all four were made up at once. I don't know much about the Koran, but it is also a religious text, and therefore largely metaphorical and not particularly trustworthy. Shouldn't there be other documentation from these times?
I could be wrong on this last point, I really don't know much about the available resources from that time.
"Why is the bible the only record of this and any other miracle event"?
The bible is a non physical concept, it is a collation of historical articles; they are the physical articles that comprise "The Bible". The four gospels probably come from two independent sources; there are similarities between three of them that suggest they came from the same source, or, were copied from eachother. Historians didn't discover the bible as a whole if that is your misconception.
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