I posted this "proof" in the 1/0 thread yesterday. I followed it up with discussion about another strange issue in math that I thought in some abstract way might be related, and then the discussion went in the direction of the second issue. So, I am starting a new thread to discuss the "proof" below. I do not know its resolution, other than that it is a reductio ad absurdum of imaginary numbers. I am open to other perspectives. |
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