Ok, i have some questions about binomial distributions now that I have been teaching myself how to go about calculating the odds of my results of this experiment. Read over the following explanation and let me know if this is an accurate way of calculating the probability of a given number of "Hits" and "Misses" out of 20 trials:
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The number of trials you do will determine which row of pascals triangle you can reference. In this case there are 20 trials.
20th row of Pascal’s Triangle
1, 20, 90, 1140, 4845, 15504, 38760, 77520, 125970, 16790, 184756, 16790, 125970, 77520, 38760, 15504, 4845, 1140, 90, 20, 1
Sum of Row 20: 746036
The number of “Hits” will indicate which number you will use from the 20th row of Pascal’s triangle. For example:
0 Hits: 1
1 Hit: 20
2 Hits: 90
10 Hits: 184756
18 Hits: 90
19 Hits: 20
20 Hits: 1
I then apply this number (X) to the following equation because the odds of a getting a “Hit” per trial is 1/6, and the odds of getting a “Miss” is 5/6.
X(1/6)^H(5/6)^M
For example: If in 20 trials I get 8 hits and 12 misses, the equation would look like:
125970 * (1/6)^8 * (5/6)^12
This answer then becomes the numerator, and the denominator is the sum of row 20 (746036). This will give you the percentage of how likely it is to get exactly that number of hits and misses out of that number of trials.
Since the goal of this sort of experiment is getting 100% accuracy (ideally), I think it would be a good idea to calculate the probability of getting *at least* X number of hits out of 20 trials, which can be done by figuring out the probability of X hits plus the probabilities of the remaining (unfulfilled hits). For example, if I get 8 hits out of 20 trials, I would calculate out the odds of getting exactly 8 hits, exactly 9 hits, exactly 10 hits, and etc up to 20 hits and then add them all together for an over all probability of getting at least 8 hits.
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Does this seem right? If so, is there a simpler way to calculate the probabilities of dice related binomial distributions?
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