 Originally Posted by Paradox-db3
Well, it can tell me that daydreaming has nothing to do with lucid dreaming, if there is a lucid dreamer who does not daydream, like yourself.
It's really not that hard to figure out...let's say a primitive society wants to know if there's a connection between gravity and sunlight. In the mid day sun, they each throw a ball up in the air, and the ball falls every time. Thus, they conclude that the sunlight has something to do with this. The size of the ball does not matter. Nor does the color. Just that they have all agreed that the sunlight plays a crucial role in making the ball come back down. Now, one of those people...yes, just one...throws a ball into the sky at night time, and the ball still comes down. Just because 99% of the people threw their ball up during the day, doesn't mean there's a connection between daylight and gravity. Because now, there's one person who proves that daylight has nothing to do with it. Is it...c-l-i-c-k-i-n-g...in yet?
So now, if there's one lucid dreamer...just one...who can have lucid dreams and not be in the practice of daydreaming, that must mean there's no connection. There must be another common factor. Lucid dreams and daydreams must have nothing to do with each other, even if 99% of lucid dreamers daydream. It just makes such clear sense to me. Am I being misunderstood, or is my logic flawed?
Anyway, John11, thank you. You have given me enough reason to believe that daydreams are not a prerequisite to attaining lucidity.
***EDIT***
The basic method for testing any theory is to first come up with a theory and then test it in more than one way, unless it fails after the first test, in which case it is deemed not a fact, as this theory of mine. And testing the theory with a group of dreaming enthusiasts is, indeed, a great place to start, after thinking on it some more.
It's not c-l-i-c-k-i-n-g yet. This is hardly a theory, like your many other posts. Again, if you have no idea what the connection between the two is, how can you possibly say that one LDer who doesn't daydream means anything? If you are going to keep talking about science and logic, then you should probably learn more about scientific logic and reasoning.
Perhaps those who frequently daydream often have a higher chances of being lucid dreamers. Sometimes, but not always. So why would one person trump your hypothesis? Maybe because you are thinking in black and white, and the answer is grey. Maybe there are 200000 lucid dreamers who daydream and twelve who don't. And maybe there are 6billion daydreamers who rarely daydream, but aren't lucid dreamers, and then some who do often, but don't LD? You haven't drawn from a large enough or random enough sample to even begin to look at it in terms of logic or legitimacy. Not to mention, there are oddities and outliers in every situation. Not to mention, liars. If you don't know what causes lucid dreaming, or what causes daydreaming, how can you even talk about them in such a manner? If you have no idea what the connection is, you can't say why or if it's relevant. Maybe it's like synesthesia, so luciddreamer=daydreamer, but that one person is some sort of mutant who doesn't have that connection. Who knows. All you can say now, assuming that there is no way that that one person who doesn't daydream is some sort of mutation or god knows what, if you are sampling from a group of clones, is that being a lucid dreamer does not always mean that you are currently an avid daydreamer. This is why you are supposed to do research before you conduct an experiment or survey. What about people who daydreamed when they were younger? Do these participants have to actively daydream, or passively daydream? How are you even defining daydream in this context? I never even heard what defined a daydream, so I couldn't add my daydreaming status.
Either way, your scientific logic is full of holes.
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