 Originally Posted by ONESO
Hi, everybody!
Coud anyone tell me what is difference between two sentence 'I bought a house' and 'I have bought a house', please?
Just imagine, that I bought a house in 2000 year. If I want to tell how many years ago I bought the house, I say 'I bought the house 9 years ago', and if I want to tell when I bought, 'since 2000 year', I say 'I have bought the house sinse 2000 year'. Sometimes I see simply sentences without any definitions. What difference is? Could you explain the difference between past simple and perfect simple, please?
You would NOT say "I have bought the house since 2000 year." You would say, 'I bought the house in 2000', or 'I bought the house in the year 2000', or I have OWNED the house since the year 2000. (the verb "to buy" is improper in this instance.)
"I bought the house." is past tense, meaning an action that took place in the past.
"I have bought." is present perfect tense.
"I had bought the house by the time they arrived." is PAST perfect tense.
The difference really is that generally the past tense is in reference to something that is fairly recent. Such as:
I ate an apple for lunch. PAST TENSE
I had eaten an apple for lunch (yesterday). FURTHER in the PAST. (perfect)
I have eaten an apple for lunch (before). ("I have" is present tense but the statement has nothing to do with something that is currently taken place, or something that has taken place before.)
Both state actions that you have done or did do, but the PAST PERFECT refers to an action that happened when something in addition happened as well.
I hope this makes some sense, and I'm very sorry if it does not.
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